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COVID-19: Euramdemic?

No need to google it, the term is not in the dictionary, not yet. I coined it. The Covid-19 epidemic, which started - and was quickly controlled- in China, is prevalent in two regions: Europe and North America. Let's look at the data: almost 80% of infections and 90% of deaths are occurring in these two geographic areas. So I logically ask myself the question: What if this is not a pandemic, but rather an epidemic specifically concerning these two regions? It would then be more logical to call it the Eur-Am-demic.

Beyond terminology, the situation is remarkable because these two regions are home to just 14% of the world's population. How to explain that nearly 90% of the epidemic concerns such a small percentage of the world's population? Of course, we do not know how the epidemic will evolve in the future. It may expand and affect the rest of the world's population to a similar degree. But at this point, it is legitimate to ask: is there something specific about these regions that can explain the prevalence and virulence of the epidemic?

Several hypotheses can be advanced: the aging population, over-medicalization, malnutrition (fast food, processed foods, etc.) with its share of consequences such as heart problems and obesity (around 50% of the American population is obese).

To be continued!


Benyounès

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